Year 2022

POLITY And GOVERNANCE [12 Questions]

Q-1 )   If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it? 
  1.  This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people. 
  2.  This would create a local self-governing body in that area. 
  3.  This would convert that area into a Union Territory. 
  4.  The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State. 

Answer

Ans: (a)

Explanation

Land Governance under the fifth Schedule area:
  1. Governor can make regulations with regard to the:
    1. Prohibition and restriction of transfer of land from and between Scheduled Tribes– almost every State in the country, and certainly all States with Scheduled Areas, have enacted legislations relating to prevention/prohibition of land transfer in Scheduled Areas by tribals to non-tribals, and in some cases, even the transfer of land between tribals inter-se is restricted. Hence, option (a) is correct.
    2. Regulation of allotment of land to tribals in Scheduled Areas. 
    3. Regulation of moneylending in Scheduled Areas to tribals.

dule.pdfhttps://www.mea.gov.in/Images/pdf1/S5.pdf

https://tribal.nic.in/downloads/FRA/5.%20Land%20and%20Governance%20under%20Fifth%20Sche

Q-2 )  In the Government of India Act 1919, the functions of Provincial Government were divided into “Reserved” and “Transferred” subjects. Which of the following were treated as “Reserved” subjects?
  1. Administration of Justice
  2. Local Self-Government
  3. Land Revenue
  4. Police

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1.  a, b and c
  2.  b, c and d
  3.  a, c and d
  4.  a, b and d

Answer

Ans: (c)

Explanation

  1. As per Government of India Act, 1919 the Subjects were divided into two lists: “reserved” which included subjects such as law and order, finance, land revenue, irrigation, etc., and “transferred” subjects such as education, health, local government, industry, agriculture, excise, etc.
  2. Hence, option (c) is correct.
Q-3 )  Consider the following statements:
  1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed.
  2. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves.
  3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt.
  4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1.  a and b only 
  2.  a, b and d
  3.  c and d only
  4.  c only

Answer

Ans: (b)

Explanation

  1. The 1963 Bill prepared by the Satyapal Committee was reviewed by a Joint Committee of Parliament (1969-70) (Bhargava Committee). Based on which the Contempt of Court Act, 1971 was enacted. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  2. Article 129 of the Constitution empowered the Supreme Court to punish for contempt of self. Article 215 gave the respective power to the High Courts. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  3. According to the Contempt of Court Act, 1971,  contempt refers to the offence of showing disrespect to the dignity or authority of a court. The expression ‘contempt of court’ has not been defined by the Constitution. However, Article 129 of the Constitution empowers the Supreme Court to punish for contempt of self. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
  4. The power to punish for contempt is a constitutional power vested in the Supreme Court which cannot be curtailed or abolished even by a legislative act. Article 142(2) states that “subject to the provisions of any law made by Parliament in this behalf” the Supreme Court shall have full power to make any order on the punishment of contempt. Hence statement 4 is correct.
Q-4 )   With reference to India, consider the following statements:
  1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognized as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.
  2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1.  a  only 
  2.  b  only 
  3. Both a and b
  4.  Neither a nor b

Answer

Ans: (b)

Explanation

  1. Government law officers, legal firms and patent jurists are recognized as advocates, while corporate lawyers are outside the recognition of advocates. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
  2. The Bar Council of India is a statutory body established under Section 4 of the Advocates Act 1961 that regulates legal practice and legal education in India. Its members are elected from amongst lawyers in India and thus represent the Indian Bar. It sets standards of professional conduct, and etiquette and exercises disciplinary jurisdiction over the bar.
  3. It also sets standards for legal education and provides recognition to universities whose law degrees will serve as qualifications for students to enroll as advocates at the undergraduate level. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Q-5 )  Consider the following statements:
  1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India.
  2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent.
  3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1.  a and b only 
  2.  b and c only 
  3.  a and c only 
  4.  a, b and c

Answer

Ans: (b)

Explanation

  1. The Constitution Amendment Bill can be reinstated by a minister or a private member and for this the prior approval of the President is not necessary. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  2. The President is bound to assent to the bill. They can neither keep the bill with themselves nor send it to the Parliament for reconsideration. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  3. It is mandatory to pass the Constitution Amendment Bill separately in each house. In case of disagreement between the two houses, there is no provision to pass the bill in the joint sitting of both the houses. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Q-6 )  Consider the following statements:
  1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.
  2. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1.  a  only 
  2.  b  only 
  3. Both a  and  b
  4. Neither a  nor  b

Answer

Ans: (b)

Explanation

  1. There are three categories of ministers in the Council of Ministers – Cabinet Ministers, Ministers of State, Deputy Ministers. The difference between them is- their hierarchy, their salary and political importance. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
  2. The total number of members of the Council of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total strength of the Lok Sabha. This provision has been included by the 91st Constitutional Amendment Bill, 2003. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Q-7 )  Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha?
  1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency
  2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers
  3. To impeach the President of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1.  a  and b
  2.  b  only 
  3.  a and c
  4.  c only

Answer

Ans: (b)

Explanation

  1.  It is the exclusive power of the Lok Sabha to pass a no-confidence motion against the Council of Ministers. When the Lok Sabha passes a no-confidence motion against the Council of Ministers, all the ministers, including the ministers of the Rajya Sabha, have to resign. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  2.  The resolution of the proclamation of emergency will be required to be passed by a majority of the total number of members of each House of Parliament and 2/3 majority of the members present and voting. A Declaration of National Emergency is placed before each House of Parliament and if it is not approved within a month, it does not remain in force, but once approved, it can remain in operation for six months. As a result, the Proclamation of Emergency is ratified by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. It is not the exclusive power of the Lok Sabha. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  3.  The impeachment motion of the President should be passed by a special majority (two-thirds) in the original house. The motion is then sent to the other house for consideration. The second house acts as an inspector. A Select Committee has been constituted to investigate the allegations against the President. Impeachment of the President of India comes under both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. It is not the exclusive power of Lok Sabha. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Q-8 )  With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements?
  1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House.
  2. The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1.   a  only
  2.   b  only 
  3.   Both a and  b
  4.   Neither a nor b

Answer

Ans: (b)

Explanation

  1. A public representative can be disqualified under the Anti-Defection Act if:
    1.  An elected member voluntarily gives up the membership of a political party.
    2.  An independent elected member joins a political party.
    3.  A member votes against the party in the House.
    4.  A member abstains from voting.
  2. After the expiry of six months, a nominated member joins a political party.
  3. Therefore, any nominated MLA can join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House but not after six months. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
  4. As per the law, the Speaker of the House has the power to decide the disqualification of the members.
  5. If any complaint is received regarding the party of the Speaker of the House, any other member elected by the House has the right to take a decision in this regard. Therefore, this law does not prescribe any time period within which the presiding officer has to decide the defection case. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Q-9 )  Consider the following statements:
  1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.
  2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1.   a  only
  2.   b  only 
  3.   Both a and  b
  4.   Neither a nor b

Answer

Ans: (d)

Explanation

  1. According to the Constitution, only the Attorney Generalcan take part in the proceedings of both the Houses of Parliament or their joint sitting and any committee of the Parliament of which s/he may be named a member, but without a right to vote. In addition to the AG, there are other law officers of the Government of India. They are the solicitor general of India and additional solicitor general of India. They assist the Attorney General in carrying out official duties. The Constitution does not mention the solicitor general and additional solicitor general. Hence statement 1 not correct.
  2. The procedure and grounds for removal of the Attorney General are not mentioned in the Constitution. He holds office during the pleasure of the President (may be removed by the President at any time). Therefore, the Attorney General of India does not resign on the resignation of the government. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
Q-10 )  With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements:
  1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organization unless it is entrusted with a public duty.
  2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company.
  3. Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1.   a  and b only
  2.   b  and  c only 
  3.   a  and  c only 
  4.   a , b  and  c

Answer

Ans: (c)

Explanation

  1. Mandamus is issued to direct a public authority to do its duty. Mandamus is a judicial remedy in the form of an order from a court. It cannot be issued to compel an authority to do something against a statutory provision. Therefore, no mandate will be issued against any private organisation unless it has been entrusted with any public work. Hence option 1 is correct.
  2. Mandamus is issued by the court to a public official asking him to perform his official duties that he has failed or refused to perform. It can also be issued against anypublic body, a corporation, an inferior court, a tribunal or government for the same purpose. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. 
  3. The Supreme Court or High Court issues this writ to prevent illegal usurpation of public office by any person. Through this writ, the court examines the validity of a person’s claim to public office. This writ empowers any person other than the aggrieved person to seek redress. Therefore, any public-prone person can be a petitioner to move the court to obtain a writ of right. Hence option 3 is correct.
Q-11 )  With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements:
  1. Private and public hospitals must adopt it.
  2. As it aims to achieve universal, health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately.
  3. It has seamless portability across the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1.   a  and b only
  2.   c only
  3.   a  and  c only 
  4.   a , b  and  c

Answer

Ans: (d)

Explanation

  1. Under this mission, citizens will be able to get their Ayushman Bharat health account number, which can be linked to their digital health records. Ayushman Bharat is a flagship scheme of the country, which was launched as per the recommendation of National Health Policy 2017 to achieve the vision of Universal Health Coverage (UHC).
  2. It aims to provide digital health IDs to all Indian citizens to help hospitals, insurance firms and citizens access health records electronically when required. It will be provided to every citizen which will also act as their health account. This health account will contain details of each test, each disease, doctor’s appointment, medicines taken and diagnosis.
  3. Health ID is free and voluntary. It will help in analysing health data and ensure better planning, budgeting and implementation of health programmes. Hence, statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
Q-12 )  With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:
  1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.
  2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.
  3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.
  4. The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1.   a  and c only
  2.   a , b  and  c
  3.   c  and  d only 
  4.   b  and  d only 

Answer

Ans: (a)

Explanation

  1. According to the rules of procedure and conduct of business in the Lok Sabha, “The election of the Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as may be decided by the Speaker. As per convention, the post of Deputy Speaker is given to the opposition party in India. Hence, option 1 is correct.
  2. Till the 10thLok Sabha, both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker were usually elected from the ruling party. Since the 11th Lok Sabha, it has been a general consensus that the post of Speaker is given to the ruling party/coalition and the post of Deputy Speaker is given to the main opposition party. Hence option 2 is correct.
  3. He is the final interpreter of the provisions of the Constitution of India, the rules of procedure and conduct of business of the Lok Sabha and parliamentary matters inside the House. In matters of interpretation of these provisions, it often gives decisions which are respected by the members and which are binding in nature. That is, his decision is final. Article 95 provides for the power of the Vice-Chairman or other person to perform the duties of the office of the Speaker or to act as the Speaker. Therefore, while presiding over the sitting of the House by the Deputy Speaker, his power is exactly the same as that of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha and no appeal can lie against his decisions. Hence option 3 is correct.
  4. The Deputy Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha from among its members. After the election of the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker is also elected. Hence option 4 is not correct.

GEOGRAPHY And ENVIRONMENT [31 Questions]